When one has lived a long time alone,
sour, misanthropic, one fits to oneÕs defiance
the satanic boast, It is better to reign
in hell than to submit on earth, and forget
oneÕs kind Ñ the way by now the snake does,
who stops trying to get to the floor and lingers
all across oneÕs body, slumping into its contours,
adopting its temperature Ñ and abandons hope
of the sweetness of friendship or love,
before long can barely remember what they are,
and covets the stillness in inorganic matter,
in a self-dissolution one may not know how to halt,
when one has lived a long time alone.
Part I: Multiple choice: For each of the following 35 questions choose the best answer from those provided. Each question is worth 2 points.
1. Homologous chromosomes are:
a) chromosomes that are the same length and look alike and are the same genes
b) the two copies of the same chromosome formed during the S phase of the cell cycle
c) the number of chromosomes that are found in a haploid cell
d) chromosomes that are the same length and look alike, but are different genes
e) never found in diploid organisms
2. Pleiotropy is when:
a) a body at rest tends to remain at rest
b) one gene can affect more than one trait
c) several genes affect several traits
d) more than one gene affects one trait
e) Mendelian ratios are modified so that the phenotypic ratio is not 3:1
3. In MendelÕs pea experiments he used true breeding parents for his P1 crosses. What does "true breeding" mean?
a) one parent was heterozygous for all traits and the other was homozygous recessive
b) when each parent is self-fertilized the resulting offspring always look like the parent.
c) the resulting F1 of a cross between two unlike parents always displayed the recessive phenotype
d) the traits were not co- or partially dominant.
e) Mendel never lied about his breeding data
4. In the strand of DNA being synthesized the direction of DNA synthesis is:
a) 3Õ to 5Õ in the lagging strand and 5Õ to 3Õ in the leading strand
b) always 3' to 5'
c) always 5' to 3'
d) variable during mitosis
e) determined by Z DNA
5. The nucleotides of DNA are covalently linked together by:
a) hydrogen bonds
b) methyldiester bonds
c) phosphodiester bonds
d) carbon-carbon bonds
e) peptide bonds
6. Which of the following happens during Anaphase I of Meiosis I?
a) chromosomes migrate to the center "plate" of the cell
b) condensation of the chromosomes
c) sister chromatids are pulled to the poles of the cell
d) formation of the synaptonemal complex
e) homologous chromosomes are separated
7. Semi-conservative replication means that:
a) only one strand of the DNA molecule can be synthesized continuously
b) after meiosis each daughter cell is similar but not identical to the parent cell
c) when DNA is replicated, it is only synthesized in one direction on the chromosome
d) when DNA is replicated, each new DNA molecule has one old and one new strand
e) during DNA replication only one strand of the molecule is replicated
8. A purine is a:
a) single carbon ringed nucleotide
b) double carbon ringed nucleotide
c) bond between nucleotides
d) force that holds the two DNA strands together
e) member of the Christian Coalition
9. In a dihybrid cross the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 9:3:3:1. What is the most likely explanation if a 9:7 ratio is observed from this type of cross?
a) spontaneous mutations during mitosis
b) pliotrophy
c) epistasis
d) methylation of the DNA
e) too few offspring counted
10. If intelligence is a single gene trait that shows incomplete penetrance then:
a) several genes must be controlling intelligence
b) genotypically identical people can have different intelligence levels
c) the expression of intelligence changes over the lifetime of an individual
d) genotypically identical people will always have the same intelligence level
e) you are assured to get a 100% on this test
11. Crossing over during meiosis involves exchanging genetic material between:
a) the X and the Y chromosomes
b) sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes
c) non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
d) the nucleus and the mitochondria
e) non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes
12. In the B-form DNA molecule, how far apart are adjacent nucleotides?
a) 34.0Å
b) 20 Å
c) 10Å
d) 3.4 Å
e) 2Å
13. The central dogma in molecular genetics is that:
a) Adenine bonds with Cytosine and Thymine bonds to Guanine
b) matter cannot be created nor destroyed
c) to all things there is a season
d) DNA goes to RNA which goes to protein
e) for every phenotype there is a single genotype.
14. During chromosome replication, a functional molecule of DNA polymerase III:
a) has 5Õ to 3Õ exonuclease activity
b) can begin synthesis without a free 3Õ-OH group
c) has 3Õ to 5Õ exonuclease activity
d) has template independent activity
e) does not need triphosphates of the nucleotides
15. Meiosis II is considered the "equatorial division" because:
a) the dyads are not separated
b) the homologous chromosomes are separated
c) the bivalents are separated
d) the sister chromatids are separated
e) all of the above
16. An allele is:
a) a different gene on the same chromosome
b) the pairing of homologous chromosomes in Anaphase II of meiosis
c) always dominant
d) heterozygous
e) an alternate form of a particular gene
17. Incomplete or partial dominance is:
a) when the phenotype of a heterozygous offspring is like both of the parents
b) when the phenotype of a heterozygous offspring is like neither of the parents
c) when the phenotype of a heterozygous offspring is like only one of the parents
d) when the phenotype of a homozygous offspring is like both of the parents
e) none of the above
18. How many different types of gametes will an individual heterozygous for 14 traits produce:
a) none
b) 3
c) 142
d) 214
e) 314
19. In a test cross:
a) both parents are pure breeding
b) both parents are dominant for all traits
c) one parent is heterozygous for all traits and the other is homozygous recessive
d) one parent is homozygous dominant for all traits and the other is homozygous recessive
e) one parent is heterozygous for all traits and the other is homozygous dominant
20. A 1:2:1 ratio of phenotypes in the offspring of a cross indicates that the cross was:
a) a dihybrid cross between heterozygous individuals for a co-dominant trait
b) a dihybrid cross between heterozygous individuals for a dominant/recessive trait
c) a monohybrid cross between pure breeding individuals for a co-dominant trait.
d) a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals for a co-dominant trait
e) a monohybrid cross between two pure breeding individuals where one of the alleles is lethal
21. The principle of independent assortment is that:
a) alleles of the same gene are always separated during meiosis
b) alleles of the same gene are always separated during mitosis
c) separation of alleles at one gene is independent of separation of alleles at a second gene
d) the probabilities must be multiplied to find the combined probability
e) none of the above
22. The three basic molecules in DNA are:
a) glucose, benzene, and sulfur
b) deoxyribose, nitrogenous base, and phosphate
c) pyrimidine, purine, and uracil
d) adenylic acid, uridylic acid, and guanylic acid
e) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
23. Co-dominance is:
a) when neither parental phenotypes are seen in the heterozygous offspring
b) when neither allele of a gene is lethal
c) when only a small proportion of individuals with a gene express the trait
d) when both parental traits are seen in the phenotype of a heterozygous offspring
e) only seen in polygenic traits
24. If the probability of having twins is p and the probability of not having twins is q. Which term of the binomial (p + q)7 would correspond to the probability of 2 twin births in 7.
a) 7p2q5
b) 7p5q2
c) 2p7q3
d) 2p5q
e) 
p2q5
25. If the calculated Chi squared (c2) value of a test for the goodness of fit is very large then it is probably true that:
a) the observed and expected are nearly identical
b) the observed and expected are very different
c) you have only 1 degree of freedom
d) there is considerable interference between the chromosomes
e) you will be hungry again in an hour
26. Synapsis first happens during:
a) metaphase II of Meiosis
b) metaphase I of Meiosis
c) interphase of Mitosis
d) telophaseI of Meiosis
e) prophase I of Meiosis
27. Double-cross over between adjacent genes results in:
a) double-cross over phenotype classes in the F1
b) a maximum genetic distance of 50 map units
c) underestimation of the distance between genes
d) overestimation of the distance between genes
e) complementation of mutations
28. During chromosome replication, replication forks move:
a) only from left to right
b) only from right to left
c) in both directions
d) only from one location in the chromosome of eukaryotes
e) 3Õ to 5Õ
29. DNA polymerase I is different from DNA polymerase III because DNA poly I:
a) is only a single subunit of DNA polymerase III
b) cannot synthesize DNA
c) can synthesize DNA without needing a free 3Õ OH group to start
d) has 5Õ to 3Õ exonuclease activity
e) can synthesize RNA
30. In ordered tetrad analysis, which of the orders of alleles below would indicate first-division segregation?
a) AAaaAAaa
b) aaAAaaAA
c) AAaaaaAA
d) AAAAaaaa
e) AaAaAaAa
31. The two strands of DNA in the double helix molecule:
a) are anti-parallel
b) are hydrogen bonded to each other
c) form a double helix 20 Å in diameter
d) have stacked bases
e) all of the above
32. During DNA synthesis, twisting stress in the double helix molecule ahead of the replication fork is reduced by:
a) topoisomerase
b) ligase
c) exonuclease
d) coilase
e) polymerase II
33. In a monohybrid cross the phenotypic ratios of the offspring are:
a) 3:1 if the trait show dominant/recessive inheritance
b) 1:2:1 if the trait show incomplete dominant inheritance
c) 1:2:1 if the trait shows co-dominant inheritance
d) formed when an individual heterozygous for a single gene is self-fertilized
e) all of the above
34. In the ABO blood type of humans:
a) A is dominant to B which is dominant to O
b) A and B are co-dominant and both are dominant to O
c) O is dominant to A but not to B
d) A, B and O are all co-dominant
e) A and B are partially dominant and both are recessive to O
35. If mutations that cause a phenotype are complementary then:
a) there are two different mutations one in each of two genes
b) there are two mutations in the same gene
c) the mutations do not cause a mutant phenotype
d) that phenotype looks really good on you
e) they are the same mutation
Part II. Short Answer -- You must answer all the following questions. Show your work. Unless otherwise told, assume that all traits are caused by single, unlinked, autosomal genes. If a punnett square template is given, you might not need the entire thing.